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This is definitely true. Schools rush through the course and dont really spend much time on subjects. Some of my students at their respective schools have only covered 3 4u topics at their school and i know that the plan for the upcoming weeks before their next test is to cover integration in...

for square (i) for n gon (ii) (i) \; A= \pi ^{ie} u^{2} \; (ii) A= n^{logi}*\pi ^{ie^{n}} u^{2} am i close?

now thats my kind of conclusion

The division formula as you know is: x_{0}=\frac{mx_{2}+nx_{1}}{m+n} \\ y_{0}=\frac{my_{2}+ny_{1}}{m+n} subbing in m=k and n=1 and A and B gives: x_{0}=\frac{5k-1}{k+1} \\ y_{0}=\frac{7-2k}{k+1}, \; where \\ P=(x_{0},y_{0} the question wants you to find k, so you all do now is sub P...

although i do prefer your method carrot ;)

your step is probably too complicated for them, probably best to do it like: 2^{k+1} \ge 2k^{2} \\ show \; 2k^{2} \ge (k+1)^{2} \; for \; k \ge 4 \\ best\;way\;is\;to\;consider\;difference: \\ 2k^{2}-(k+1)^{2}=k^{2}-2k-1= (k-1)^{2} -2 \ge 0 \; for \; k \ge 4

note here that every slice parallel to the base is a rectangle. At a height h, the lengths i let be x and y, and the slices thickness changes with respect to h, so i need to put x and y in terms of h. and obv h varies from 0 to 10.

In 4u you are not allowed to do it Directly like that, you should remember That in 4u it's about understanding where The volume comes from, ie, you have to Derive the volume by taking slices and Summing them up, say this question is Worth 4 marks well then 2 marks will be For deriving the...

it can appear in my exam :P

Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon New question: Prove by induction that every natural number greater than 2 has a prime divisor.

Re: HSC 2012 Marathon :) ok ill give it a go in words. Express z^n -1 as a procduct of its n roots in factored form, divide both sides by z-1, which is a factor of z^n-1. now the hsc kids finish it for me... i i i...forgot what to do next.

Yes I was more referring to the limiting Process. However this question was just Designed to see how many people think It is one as it is commonly mistaken to Be and I feel as though it is a beautiful Phenomenon how 1 to the infinity can tak On any value

bomp

1 to the power of say n (n is some finite natural number) is 1 of course, and we all are taught 1 to the power of anything is 1. So it would be obvious to think that 1^(infinity) is 1. Is this correct or not... What do you guys believe?

your screwed carrot, it lies heavily on the principles of refractive indexes, gonerrrrr!!!

Re: HSC 2012 Marathon :) hmm, if you write the polynomial as a product of n terms then take the derivative using the special nth product rule, then use a trig sub...you will get no where so i will leave it for the hsc kids to figure out what they are properly meant to do

where do you get these awesome questions from?

hmmm, shame that dp i picked out for you would of made you the mods of all mods, btw im loving the orange name now, really brings the carrot out of you

wait a second, you cant be an official moderator until you have a star wars dp :P