Zeitgeist308 said:
I found it necessary to devote the space and time to establishing who carries the burden of proof in our little scuffle since you proved unable to do so. The fact that you attribute to it a supposed lack of confidence in my own argument is unnecessary and actually shows your own desperation to "score points".
I did take care of who bears the burden of proof, you just failed to accept the obvious truth. It ultimately comes down to this: does communism work in practice? The burden of proof rests with you to provide examples of such, and if you can't see that then unfortunately this debate will never get anywhere. You think it works in practice, I don't. The evidence is explicit on my behalf: it never has. The burden of proof now rests with you, to provide an example suggesting otherwise.
Zeitgeist308 said:
Correct, instead you carry the burden of proof for the thesis that communism does not work in practice.
I think you meant something else to what you wrote? I'm confused.
Zeitgeist308 said:
Yes it does, see above (my post before last) and below for more details.
I'll give you a hint: You Can't. Hence why arguing as such is illogical.
No you are wrong on that point, not being able to prove something doesn't work, does not render arguing against it illogical. Nobody can ever prove that God definitely doesn't exist, but arguing against his existence is logical and necessary. Just as arguing against communism is logical and necessary.
Zeitgeist308 said:
Oh please, how much lower are you going to stoop in a desperate attempt to score points. If you are sceptical of my truthful replication of the sources given, go look them up!
I'm sure they are accurate representations, but you warped them (with your own words as extras) to fit your argument. I could have used the same definitions to support mine.
Zeitgeist308 said:
Actually this is an interesting analogy.
I claimed that the definitions I provided where copied from Wikipedia, Dictionary.com and the Oxford Dictionary of Philosophy. Now, why didn't you repond by saying "The supposed definitions you provided are not turthfully replicated"? You would be the negative, no? The burden of proof would be my own, correct?
As explained above, I accept that they are truthfully replicated. But I could have used them to support my argument.
Zeitgeist308 said:
No, of course not! That would be plain stupid and you know it. But, the question now begs, what is the difference between the statement "the quotes from the given sources in your post are untruthfully repilicated" and the claim that "communism does not work"?
Again, that's not what I said.
Zeitgeist308 said:
No it is not. Implicitly I can be said to agree with this assertion, however I do not take the next step and explicitly proclaim: "Communism works in 'theory' and in 'practice'". This is the same with my religious belief, I am non-religious [ie. a implicit (weak) athiest], not an explicit (strong) atheist who makes the claim "God does not exist".
You implicitly agree with this assertion then. Again you are trying to veil your lack of rebuttal with semantics. Whether you agree implicitly or explicitly is in this context regardless. You believe that it works in theory (and I'm guessing in practice) therefore you must provide valuable evidence to suggest so.
Zeitgeist308 said:
No it doesn't. They both require proof as they are both making a claim/assertion.
Zeitgeist308 said:
The examples you have used are examples of "communism" not working hitherto. It is incorrect to generalise from experience and claim communisms inherent unworkability.
If they haven't worked hitherto and they
will work hypothetically or in the future, then you are arguing for communism's workability in THEORY. Therefore according to an earlier post of yours, you are a Marxist "not worth his weight" do not come back and say "I implicitly claim that it works in theory, but never explicitly said so" because the two are the same really. I mean come on, if you're going to claim there's a difference then there's no hope left. And yes to generalise from experience, is indeed correct. It suggests communism's inherent unworkability to an unequivocal extent. "Apples fall towards the earth, if you drop them from a tree" that is simply true from experience and nothing else, as is the statement that "communism does not work in practice"
Zeitgeist308 said:
To someone who doesn't understand the difference between an implict and an explicit atheist, of course it is.
I do understand the difference, and to be an implicit atheist rather than an explicit atheist is semantic once again. OK so you don't believe god exists, BASED ON THE EVIDENCE AT HAND (There we have something in common) and I don't believe communism works BASED ON THE EVIDENCE AT HAND. Really there's little difference between saying that and "god doesn't exist" and "communism doesn't work" respectively. You may not say god does not exist, but you may as well. I mean when you say leprechauns don't exist you should theoretically say it implicitly and be an implicit leprechaun atheist. But that's ridiculous, I'm sure you'll agree.
Zeitgeist308 said:
Correct. If someone where to claim to me that "The magic of Harry Potter works not only in fiction but in material reality" I would respond in the manner of a skeptic and reply: "Unless you show me evidence of your assertion, I have no reason to believe it". This is completely different to responding by saying: "No, that's rubbish. The magic of Harry Potter is only ever going to work in fiction". This response is not the negative of the original assertion, it is merely the inverse.
But don't you see, the second argument is valid. We KNOW the magic of Harry Potter is only ever going to work in fiction, without conducting experiments. I mean, does one need to stand in a field with a wand pointed at somebody, chanting
crucio for a million years without it working, before we accept that it will never work in practice? No. There are some arguments that don't need defending, and they are arguments based on expereience and common sense.
Zeitgeist308 said:
They are if they reject the statement "The magic of Harry Potter is only ever going to work in fiction" on the basis of the burden of proof and do not put forward the inverse position explicitly.
Correct, however, the explicit (strong) atheist does need to provide evidence of (for example) the impossibility of creation, just like anti-communists must provide evidence of communisms inherent impossibility. Only the sceptic (and not the anti-theist or anti-Marxist) is free of the burden of proof.
By saying "God does not exist" you claim that I must prove his impossibility. That is false. Claiming God does not exist
requires a previous assertion or belief in his
existence. Without a
belief in God in the first place, nobody would be in the position to say he doesn't exist. I don't believe in God, because there isn't any evidence to suggest his presence, not because I can "disprove" him. In effect, those who bear the burden of proof failed in their task. Similarly I don't believe communism works in practice, because there's no evidence to suggest otherwise. "Communism doesn't work" requires the previous belief that it does work, and as such it is the rebuttal. Just as "god doesn't exist" is the rebuttal to Christianity, Judaism, Islam etc.
Zeitgeist308 said:
My requesting you to define your terms is not a last resort, it is an attempt to understand in what you mean by the statement that "communism has never worked".
It is a last resort though. If you don't understand what I meant by worked, then you wouldn't be in a position to have this debate in the first place. Asking an opponent to define "worked" in a debate is a pathetic last-resort attempt to deflect bullets.
Zeitgeist308 said:
Are you serious!? I did not know that. Just as well I asked isn't it...
If you knew, why did you ask? I'll tell you, because you have nothing left to argue about.
Zeitgeist308 said:
That's a very particular [and yet at the same time vague (ie. "etc.")] definition of "worked" you have there. Despite this, it would be incorrect to claim that there have never been any "socialist [utopian or scientific] states which have worked". I'm sure Marxist-Leninists would argue that the the USSR under Stalin was a "a free and functioning, prosperous society where people are not denied their rights and the incentive to succeed is blatant and rewarded. Worked means a system that best caters to the need of its inhabitants with minimal poverty, crime, illiteracy etc.", likewise with Utopian socialists such as Robert Owen re New Lanark and New Harmony.
Ofcourse the USSR worked, I forgot about that! Sorry I just lost the argument, how could I forget the USSR?!
Zeitgeist308 said:
What is unbelieveable about asking you to define "state"? Marxists, Anarchists and Weberians all have destinct defintions of the state as a political institution.
The context I used it in did not suggest a need for political definition. I used it as a suffix to suggest a generalised nation or place, you know that. You're just clutching at straws and trying to deflect my arguments.
Zeitgeist308 said:
How? I don't see any contradiction?
Because earlier you said arguing for communism in theory is only done by Marxists not worth their weight, and "trolls". Now unless you are suggesting yourself to be one of these entities...you contradicted yourself.
Zeitgeist308 said:
Saying that "communism" (in it's various manifestations) has not worked in practice hitherto" is not the same as saying "communism does not work in practice"
But if it hasn't worked in practice
hitherto you must surely be claiming that it will work in the future. Claiming that communism
will work is the same as claiming that communism works in theory. Remember, the future is theoretical.
Zeitgeist308 said:
If that is what you call "arguing that it works in theory", then sure I am. What else can I do but that without real-world "success" stories to refer to?
Exactly, you just proved my point from ages ago! If there are no success stories, this suggests it doesn't work in practice. But you are most certainly arguing for it, therefore you must be arguing for it in theory. Which is what advocates of communism implicitly always do. This is a ridiculous line of argument to pursue, because as I said before, you may aswell argue that dictatorship works in theory.
Zeitgeist308 said:
Fair enough, my mistake, although I think your original statement was rather ambiguous and did lend to this confusion.
Sorry about the confusion then. I didn't and still don't see the ambiguity, but perhaps that's because I wrote it.
Zeitgeist308 said:
In what ways are they similar?
Both lead to poverty, crime and a lack of prosperity. Fascist Cambodia differed little to Stalinist Russia.
Zeitgeist308 said:
You are the one who misattributed these characteristics to Communist political theory. You made the mistake here. Don't try to shake it off or shout it down with your bleating.
Which is why I'm saying that arguing for it in theory is even more illogical, because in practice the theoretical isn't even realistic.
May I point out to those who are reading these posts, that at least I have had the decency to rebutt Zeitgesit's arguments
in their entirity. Zeitgeist's last post highlighted his propensity to pick and choose portions of my argument and quote only them. My arguments were taken out of context, and often the only reason he was able to argue them is because they were denied their original chaperones. Every argument I have challenged of his, I have challenged in its entirity and I have included the entire quote in my post. His debating tactics have degenerated from weak to dirty.