Zeitgeist308 said:
It seems to me you have some major confusion regarding the burden of proof. Firstly let us define the burden of proof.
If in some situation there is a proper presumption that something is true, anyone seeking to prove its opposite is said to bear the burden of proof. A certain amount of philosophical jockeying consists in trying to shift the burden of proof. - “burden of proof”, Oxford Dictionary of Philosophy
In the common law, burden of proof is the obligation to prove allegations which are presented in a legal action. More colloquially, burden of proof refers to an obligation in a particular context to defend a position against a prima facie other position. - "burden of proof", Wikipedia
Chiefly Law. the obligation to offer evidence that the court or jury could reasonably believe, in support of a contention, failing which the case will be lost - “burden of proof”, Dictionary.com
From the above, it is the party making the claim/presumption/assertion/allegation/contention which bears the burden of proof. Now we have established a definition of the burden of proof (assuming you do not object to it), the question is now: who has the burden of proof in this debate? The answer is quite simple: the party making the presumption/claim/assertion/allegation/contention. But now, which party is that party?
I did not start this thread. This thread was started for the purpose of allowing right-wingers to have a circle jerk and prove their superiority to the Marxist. Throughout the entire thread I have had little opportunity to argue the workability of communism, my main efforts being geared to the refutation of the various arguments made toward Marxist theory in all it's manifestations (with the exception of the philosophical). As such it would be foolish to say that (taken with reference to the entire thread) I have the burden of proof, since I have been on the defensive. I have been the negative pole responding to the 34 pages of argument thrown at me. However both you and I are not looking at the thread in it's entirety, rather we are focusing on the dialogue between each of us over the last 3 pages.
So the question is still unanswered: which party (in the debate between you and I) has the burden of proof? You actually provide the answer yourself:
You are making the assertion!
You are claiming “Neither scientific socialism nor utopian socialism work in practice” and that Marxist theory is “pathetic and childish” and “based on the absurd and completely irrational”!
As such you bear the burden of proof!
I hope nobody is falling for this rubbish. Honestly you have just devoted a huge amount of space to arguing who has the burden of proof. You mustn't have much confidence left in your argument. Discard the entire thread, we aren't discussing it anymore...you know that. I DO NOT bear the burden of proof in the overall thesis that communism, Marxism etc. do not work in practice. To assume so is simply nit-picking and academic and it does not look at the facts. To say that communism doesn't work, does not require me to "prove" it. How does one prove that communism doesn't work? I could indeed provide a list of countries as I've offered, which would definitely "suggest" communism doesn't work, but it wouldn't "prove" anything. If on the other hand, you were to provide one solid example of communism's successful functionality then yes, we would have to say that communism works in practice. The burden of proof in this argument is inexorably in your hands. In essence I am arguing communism doesn't work, you are arguing communism works, right? My assertion of childish, irrational, pathetic etc. is in rebuttal to the prospect of communism ever working. It's childish, irrational and pathetic BECAUSE it doesn't work, and the proof is in the pudding. There aren't any successful communist countries in the world. You know that has been the point at hand, but in an attempt to avoid the truth you have veiled the fallacy of your argument with verbose semantics regarding who must prove what. Let's face it, if you think communism can ever work in practice, you must provide the evidence. Forget what Oxford and Wikipedia say (which you have warped to fit your argument) and just face the facts, prove communism has ever worked in practice. Russia, China, Vietnam, Cuba, Old Poland etc. are my proofs that it doesn't work if you really want something you can call "evidence" but I maintain, that such a list is not necessary in the argument of communism's "workability" as you call it. The burden of proof lies with the affirmative, and if the affirmative can not prove anything, then communism is indeed a childish and pathetic excuse for a political system.
Zeitgeist308 said:
Incorrect. You are making the assertions. Whether they are “positive” or “negative” is irrelevant and relativistic. In so far as you are taking the negative side explicitly you bear the burden of proof. You can be regarded as the defendant only in-so-far as you are you are taking the negative side implicitly. Let us take an example to elaborate on this:
Again with semantics, "communism works" is your assersion. Surely you can see this claim needs much more evidence and proof, than my claim of communism's not working. Yet I am the only one to put forward examples of it not working.
Zeitgeist308 said:
This statement beautifully demonstrates your misunderstanding.
The question of the belief in the existence of god(s) (just like that of the workability of communism or the correctness of Marxist analysis) can be answered with one (or two) of three potential positions. They are as follows:
I.A belief in the existence of god
II.A non-belief in the existence of god
III.A belief in the existence of god.
Positions I and III are explicit statements of belief. There is no difference (re the burden of proof) between saying “God does not exist” and “God exists”, both are explicit claims/presumptions/assertions/allegations/contentions as to the existence of god. This is why (just like theism) explicit atheism is illogical.
The same applies to you argument. In so far as you claim that “Neither scientific socialism nor utopian socialism work in practice” and that Marxist theory is “pathetic and childish” and “based on the absurd and completely illogical” you bear a burden of proof, without which you argument is fallacious. If you where to say to me “I do not believe communism can work”, “I do not adhere to the analysis taken by Marxist theory” or even “I do not believe the basis of Marxism to be logical”, you would not have the burden of proof upon yourself.
I've been scrolling a while...and still with semantics. By the way, you're wrong. You are missing the point of my argument completely. I'm not sure if it's due to ignorance or something more sinister, either way I'll continue. It is based on the absurd and irrational BECAUSE it doesn't work. The hope and dream of a functioning communist nation is absurd and irrational, because well...it's impossible (i.e. Russia, China, Vietnam, Cuba). And your claim that "god does not exist" requires as much proof as "god exists" is absolutely obscence. "The magic of Harry Potter is only ever going to work in fiction". According to you, this is an explicit statement that needs proof and evidence. People that believe that the magic works in practice (I'm sure there are some) are not the
negative, or the
defensive. Just because I make that statement first doesn't make me affirmative, it calls into line the need for the "magicists" to provide evidence of
Avada Kedavra killing someone in the real world. Just as the statement "god does not exist" doesn't require me to prove his non-existence, and "communism does not work" doesn't require me to prove its non-functionability. Rather theists must provide evidence of creation, and communsits must provide evidence of communism's success.
Zeitgeist308 said:
Now that we have closed the book on the issue of the burden of proof, unless you provide that proof we can discard your argument as logically falacious.
We have indeed closed the book on the issue of the burden of proof, and I await your proof with great anticipation.
Zeitgeist308 said:
1. What do you define as “worked”? A number of communes and other such small-scale experiments (and yes, in this case they were “experiments”) were established by Utopian Socialists during the 18th and 19th Century.
2. What do you define as the “state”? Utopian socialists do not believe in the establishment of a “state”.
3. Do you even know what “Utopian Socialism” is? It's been dead for over 150 years!
1. I can not believe it! Still with pathetic semantics! 'What do you define as "worked"?' I mean if this is what your using to support your dying argument, then really it's game over. Worked means worked: a free and functioning, prosperous society where people are not denied their rights and the incentive to succeed is blatant and rewarded. Worked means a system that best caters to the need of its inhabitants with minimal poverty, crime, illiteracy etc.
2. Unbelievable 'What do you define as the "state"' By state I mean sovereign nation.
3. Yes...So what?
Zeitgeist308 said:
Well that's a question of how you define “successful”. I would argue not only that there have never been any “successful socialist states” but that there have never even been any socialist states. Others such Anti-Revisionists (Stalinists), Maoists, Titoists and Castroites would disagree).
All that needs to be done with this argument is to highlight it. Are you happy that your argument has decayed to a definition of successful? Successful means a place that you would be happy to live in and raise your children in. Successful may also mean the best possible alternative to perfection. Successful means similar to "worked" as defined above. "there have never been any socialist states" you just contradicted your entire argument. You have proved to the masses that you are indeed saying communism works in theory. You couldn't claim it works in practice because you yourself have said there are no examples. Like I said before, and will discuss in a second. You claim that communism works in theory, but you may as well claim that dictatorship works in theory, for in theory a dictatorship works.
Zeitgeist308 said:
Marxists don't claim it works in theory hey? They may not say it directly, but read over your pages of debate and tell me if your discussion is about a real world system, or the theory of Marxism.refer? Marxists DO say it. If it doesn't work in practice, and you say you don't claim it works in theory...then where the hell does it work?
"there have never been any socialist states" ergo, you are arguing that it works in
theory, quite obviously not in practice. There's your reference.
Zeitgeist308 said:
You too, that was a great argument...
*Throws auerbach's original argument out of window due to logical fallaciousness *
hmmm
Zeitgeist308 said:
Please, don't act dumb. It was not a mere coincidence you placed them side by side. Why don't we read your original statement again:
You are directly implying that Communism is synonymous with the more general for of political dictatorship. It is only subsequently when you realised that we were speaking of different things did you try to go back on your original point.
I placed them deliberately side by side, because they are the proverbial political poles. Extreme left wing v. Extreme right wing. The natural enemy of communism is dictatorship, so I'm simply saying that by claiming it works in theory is stupid, because "the others" can use the same argument. I am not directly implying that communism is synonymous with a political dictatorship, but now that you've invited me to, I will. In practice the two are very similar.
Zeitgeist308 said:
Neither capitalism nor communism preach anything; they are modes of production. That is of course, unless you're telling me an historical stage defined by specific combination between the productive forces of society and the relations of production can preach?
Zeitgeist308 said:
“ removal of classes”: Correct
“ removal of religion”: Half-Truth, religion can not be done away with overnight. Marxists hold that religion (like the state) will wither away when the conditions for it's existence cease (ie. Oppression and alienation)
“equal sharing of resources”: Incorrect, Marx used the slogan “to each according to their need” in the Critique of the Gotha Programme to describe the potential basis for the distribution of articles of consumption to the members of a communist society.
“heavy government involvement”: Half-Truth, the immediate aim of communists is the smahing of the bourgeois state, the seizure of political power by the working class, the confiscation of private property in the means of production and it's conversion into the common property of society as a whole with production and control over the means of production being exercised by the the society collectively through directly democratic organs such as factory committees and workers councils. In other words Marxist advocate the socialisation/communisation of the means of production by the workers state, however socialisation/communisation is not synonymous with nationalisation
“closed economies”: Incorrect, Marx was an advocate of free-trade. These things aren't hard to look up...
I don't care what Marx was an advocate of, you are again arguing for communism IN THEORY. Look at the communist countries of the world and see if they are open.