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Calculus & Analysis Marathon & Questions (1 Viewer)

leehuan

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

An equation can still have infinite solutions.
For this question, because infinity is not a measurable quantity (and I'm not sure if you can assume that it is an integer) we can't say for sure what the behaviour of f is if f(x)=y yields an infinite number of solutions.

At least, my simple brain can't visualise f anymore
 

leehuan

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

Not even sure what I was thinking at the time now
 

Paradoxica

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

Part 1 (not a very rigorous proof, though):



Here's my attempt:

Since x is positive, we can invoke the following inequalities:





It is easy to show that the left hand side is bounded from above by 3/2, and the right hand side is bounded from below by the same value.

It is then sufficient to show the left bound is monotonically increasing, and the right bound is monotonically decreasing, for sufficiently large x.
 

leehuan

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

Here's my attempt:

Since x is positive, we can invoke the following inequalities:





It is easy to show that the left hand side is bounded from above by 3/2, and the right hand side is bounded from below by the same value.

It is then sufficient to show the left bound is monotonically increasing, and the right bound is monotonically decreasing, for sufficiently large x.
Believe it or not my workbook was happy if you just used L'Hopitals
 

Paradoxica

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

Believe it or not my workbook was happy if you just used L'Hopitals
Not rigorous enough :p

jks. But I cringe at directly using that on the expression, I would rather use it on the bounds, it's much more nice-looking.
 

leehuan

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

@IG

Still suspecting I haven't fully finished seanieg's question though. Anything else to pick up?
 

InteGrand

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

^ I think you should try invoking the IVT to prove some things I think you're trying to prove.
 

seanieg89

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

(Sorry about delayed response, am wrestling with a problem of my own :p)

Yep @leehuan, IVT, and EVT are key to rigorous argument here. You are on a nice train of thought and I think you have a good intuitive grasp of why k=2 is impossible, but making this rigorous takes some care.

The "infinitesimal" part of your proof in particular needs to be made more precise, and things like Rolle's theorem are inapplicable here because the function need not be differentiable.

From what you are saying though, it seems to me you have the correct "picture" in your head for your k=2 disproof.

(I am also unconvinced that this "picture" serves to disprove the k>2 possibility so think about explaining that a little clearer).
 

seanieg89

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

But what about k = ∞ ?
Yes it is possible. Eg: f(x)=x*sin(x).

Part 1 (not a very rigorous proof, though):



This is easy to make rigorous. For large x, x^3+1 < 2x^3 and x^2+1 < 2x^2. So

log(x^3+1)/log(x^2+1) < log(2x^3)/log(x^2) = (log(2)+3log(x))/2log(x).

and

log(x^3+1)/log(x^2+1) > log(x^3)/log(2x^2)=3log(x)/(log(2)+2log(x)).

Squeeze to finish.

Hmm...





At least, I don't think a cusp/corner can't be a local extrema here?
Corners do not have to be local extrema. Eg f(x)=max(x,2x) at 0.

Also, lack of differentiability can occur in ways worse than corners. (f(x)-f(a))/(x-a) needs not tend to a limit at all as x tends to a, or it might only tend to a limit from one side.

It is more trouble than it is worth to appeal to theorems about differentiable functions and then treat the exceptional points separately. (In fact a continuous function might be differentiable nowhere!)
 
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leehuan

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

Hmmm

With the IVT I can pretty much find how to apply it. Just get rid of that infinitesimal stuff and properly redefine it (which I might do later). Which gives me some ideas on the EVT but I haven't placed too much thought into it to know what's right and what's flawed.

May continue this when I have more free time. Gah I hate assignment based subjects
 

Paradoxica

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

Yes it is possible. Eg: f(x)=x*sin(x).



This is easy to make rigorous. For large x, x^3+1 < 2x^3 and x^2+1 < 2x^2. So

log(x^3+1)/log(x^2+1) < log(2x^3)/log(x^2) = (log(2)+3log(x))/2log(x).

and

log(x^3+1)/log(x^2+1) > log(x^3)/log(2x^2)=3log(x)/(log(2)+2log(x)).

Squeeze to finish.



Corners do not have to be local extrema. Eg f(x)=max(x,2x) at 0.

Also, lack of differentiability can occur in ways worse than corners. (f(x)-f(a))/(x-a) needs not tend to a limit at all as x tends to a, or it might only tend to a limit from one side.

It is more trouble than it is worth to appeal to theorems about differentiable functions and then treat the exceptional points separately. (In fact a continuous function might be differentiable nowhere!)
*cough*weierstrass*cough*
 

Paradoxica

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

Imagine Carrotsticks BOS trial last Q. of 4U paper 2016: 'Sketch the graphs of the Weierstrass and Dirichlet functions' :p.
the final part will be:

hence, sketch the indefinite integral of the weierstrass and dirichlet functions, with any choice of C you like.
 

leehuan

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

Regarding the continuity part:

Informally, when x≥0, 0≤f(x)≤x3 and when x≤0, x3≤f(x)≤0

But in both cases if we take limits to nought, by the squeeze theorem we have lim x->0 f(x) = 0 which incidentally enough equals f(0)
______________________

The answer given to the derivative was wrong because I didn't regard the significance of what h was.


lim x->0 [ f(0+h)-f(0) ] / h
= lim x->0 f(h)/h

but f(h) = h3 when h is rational
and f(h) = 0 when h is irrational

Note then that f(h)/h = h2 for h in Q
or = 0 for h not in Q

Haven't done questions like this one before yet but just staring at it I'm inclined to say the squeeze theorem can be used again
 

InteGrand

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

Yeah it's basically squeeze law. We can use that to show that f'(0) = 0.
 

seanieg89

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Re: First Year Uni Calculus Marathon

Haven't done questions like this one before yet but just staring at it I'm inclined to say the squeeze theorem can be used again


(The "=>" comes from the squeeze law. Generally if we suspect something might tend to zero, it is often convenient to take absolute values as then we just need to bound it above by something that tends to zero.)
 

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