Re: HSC 2016 3U Marathon
$This is not the case; rather, it is $f ^\prime (a) = \frac{1}{ \left( f^{-1} \right) ^\prime \left( b \right) }=\frac{1}{\left(f^{-1} \right) ^{\prime} \left(f(a)\right)}$, where $(a,b)$ is a point on the graph of $y=f(x)$, so $(b,a)$ lies on the graph of $y=f^{-1}...