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Bored of Studies Trial Discussion Thread. (2 Viewers)

bleakarcher

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Same..

For the question about reasoning why f(x) < g(x) or something like that for 1 mark, i can't seem to express myself properly lol.

Could someone post up their reasoning?
Wait, shit that's wrong.
 
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I ...differentiated twice HAHAHHA. It worked, though. After doing double angles, and all. 1 page motherfckers!
 

barbernator

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add Bcos^2(nt/2) and subtract it and then it cancels to the form x=(A-B)cos(nt)+B, you didn't have to differentiate. and from there ii) followed, through subbing in values.
 
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barbernator

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lol just realised. For the Q13 a) exponential decay, I got the answer out with a t0 hanging off the end and i re-did it but it didn't disappear. t0=0 *facepalm*
 
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i'm really smart and read the data wrong so I had like x= e^(142.5) or something ridiculous. lol...error was in the initial conditions
 

barbernator

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Hint: Symmetry property.
ahhh yes! this is very similar to what you were explaining in your MX2 seminar. just do whatever it says (in this case x n/2) and play with it from there. Will post working.

<a href="http://www.codecogs.com/eqnedit.php?latex=from~ii)\\\\ \frac{n}{2}\sum_{r=0}^{n}\binom{n}{r}^{2}=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}\\\\ \frac{n}{2}(\binom{n}{0}^{2}@plus;\binom{n}{1}^{2}@plus;...@plus;\binom{n}{n}^{2})=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}\\\\ n(\binom{n}{0}^{2}@plus;\binom{n}{1}^{2}@plus;...@plus;\binom{n}{n/2}^{2})=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}(by~symmetry)\\\\ 0\binom{n}{0}^{2}@plus;n\binom{n}{n}^{2}@plus;1\binom{n}{1}^{2}@plus;(n-1)\binom{n}{n-1}^{2}@plus;...=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}(again~by~symmetry)\\\\\therefore \sum_{r=0}^{n}r\binom{n}{r}^{2}=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}~as~required." target="_blank"><img src="http://latex.codecogs.com/gif.latex?from~ii)\\\\ \frac{n}{2}\sum_{r=0}^{n}\binom{n}{r}^{2}=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}\\\\ \frac{n}{2}(\binom{n}{0}^{2}+\binom{n}{1}^{2}+...+\binom{n}{n}^{2})=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}\\\\ n(\binom{n}{0}^{2}+\binom{n}{1}^{2}+...+\binom{n}{n/2}^{2})=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}(by~symmetry)\\\\ 0\binom{n}{0}^{2}+n\binom{n}{n}^{2}+1\binom{n}{1}^{2}+(n-1)\binom{n}{n-1}^{2}+...=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}(again~by~symmetry)\\\\\therefore \sum_{r=0}^{n}r\binom{n}{r}^{2}=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}~as~required." title="from~ii)\\\\ \frac{n}{2}\sum_{r=0}^{n}\binom{n}{r}^{2}=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}\\\\ \frac{n}{2}(\binom{n}{0}^{2}+\binom{n}{1}^{2}+...+\binom{n}{n}^{2})=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}\\\\ n(\binom{n}{0}^{2}+\binom{n}{1}^{2}+...+\binom{n}{n/2}^{2})=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}(by~symmetry)\\\\ 0\binom{n}{0}^{2}+n\binom{n}{n}^{2}+1\binom{n}{1}^{2}+(n-1)\binom{n}{n-1}^{2}+...=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}(again~by~symmetry)\\\\\therefore \sum_{r=0}^{n}r\binom{n}{r}^{2}=\frac{n}{2}\binom{2n}{n}~as~required." /></a>
 
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jackerino

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FUcking woah. You even START OUT guns blazing lol, Realise's prelim paper at least STARTED with some free marks for everyone HAHAHAHA
 

Trebla

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Same..

For the question about reasoning why f(x) < g(x) or something like that for 1 mark, i can't seem to express myself properly lol.

Could someone post up their reasoning?
I was gonna be like: LOOK AT TEH GRAPH. Not very convincing.



Shet. That doesn't work...maybe b / and or a are 0<a,b<1...awks.
Simply solve f(x) < g(x) and you get a quadratic inequality which solves out to -1 < x < 1 but since x is non-negative then the domain is 0 < x < 1. Likewise, solve f(x) > g(x) given x > 0 to get the other inequality/domain.
 

barbernator

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probability part iii) anyone? I couldn't get it because of the double H's :(
 

nightweaver066

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Looking through the paper again.. misread so many questions.. Even skipped one by accident :(
 
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I didn't even do that part ... too many cases / I didn't see a quick way...
 

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