deswa1
Well-Known Member
- Joined
- Jul 12, 2011
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- HSC
- 2012
Hey guys,
For this question, obviously f(x) is undefined at x=-2 and when you work out the inverse function, it ends up being f(x)=2x/(1-x) which is undefined at x=1. So when you write the domain for part vi), is the domain all real x except x=1 or all real x except x=1,-2 as -2 isn't defined in the original domain? Or do we treat the inverse as an entirely new function so its just undefined for x=1?
For this question, obviously f(x) is undefined at x=-2 and when you work out the inverse function, it ends up being f(x)=2x/(1-x) which is undefined at x=1. So when you write the domain for part vi), is the domain all real x except x=1 or all real x except x=1,-2 as -2 isn't defined in the original domain? Or do we treat the inverse as an entirely new function so its just undefined for x=1?