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Js^-1

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If we say that:

p/q = 2 (n*sin(π/2n))<sup>2</sup>

What is the limiting value of p/q as n --> ∞
 
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conics2008

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p/q = 2 (n*sin(π/2n))2

n --> inf

we need to make it in the form of sinax/ax ok

from 2unit sinax/ax =1

so follow this.. i remember doing this, this is the 2007 exam paper it was straight forward and also the calculator is your friend..
 

lolokay

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well lim n->∞ sin(pi/2n)/(pi/2n) = 1
(2/pi) n*sin(pi/2n) = 1
n*sin(pi/2n) = pi/2
2(n*sin(pi/2n))2 = pi2/2
I think
 

Js^-1

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Ah yeh I remember the sinx/x thing.

So 2( sin(pi/2)/(pi/2) * (pi/2) )<sup>2</sup>
n-->inf = 2( (pi/2))<sup>2</sup>
= 2(pi)<sup>2</sup>/4
= (pi)<sup>2</sup>/2 ?
 

Js^-1

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Awesome thanks heaps people.
 

Js^-1

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It was the very last question of last years 2007 Extension 2 paper, but the method is essentially 2 unit I think.
 

Timothy.Siu

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Js^-1 said:
It was the very last question of last years 2007 Extension 2 paper, but the method is essentially 2 unit I think.
lol, not really 2unit i dont think, u dont learn sin x/x = 1 as x--> infinity
maybe 3unit
 

conics2008

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its def 2unit..

its just basic limits question.. good on ya js^-1 but in the exax remember that the calculator is your firend.. xD

you can just sub in a really large number xD
and hope for the ebst on from there...

but keep in mind u need to use what ever u have..
 

munch0r

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Timothy.Siu said:
lol, not really 2unit i dont think, u dont learn sin x/x = 1 as x--> infinity
maybe 3unit
where exactly is sin x/x = 1 as x--> infinity in any textbook.
i can only find sin x/x = 0 as x --> infinity according to the "squeeze theorem"
 

Js^-1

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Thanks conics...that question 8 was actually likeable - It didn't make me want to shoot myself just by looking at it.
 

lolokay

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munch0r said:
where exactly is sin x/x = 1 as x--> infinity in any textbook.
i can only find sin x/x = 0 as x --> infinity according to the "squeeze theorem"
as n->∞
pi/2n -> 0
so it's the same thing pretty much

(as x->∞, sinx/x ->0 since x keeps getting larger, but sinx doesn't exceed +-1)
 
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Js^-1

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where exactly is sin x/x = 1 as x--> infinity in any textbook.
i can only find sin x/x = 0 as x --> infinity according to the "squeeze theorem"
Maths in Focus: Two/Three unit Book two, page 182.

Its says: Lim<sub>x-->0</sub> sinx/x = 1

Substitute x for pi/2n

As n--> Infinity
x--> 0
 
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conics2008

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Js^-1 said:
Thanks conics...that question 8 was actually likeable - It didn't make me want to shoot myself just by looking at it.
yeah believe it or not, 2007 paper is my favourite paper over all.. i actually did all of question 8 without encountring too much pain unlike some other past papers..

I hope this year paper is the same level..

try doing paper 1993 xD
 

munch0r

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tacogym27101990 said:
i thought the rule was lim x>0 sinx/x =1
i cant remember learning that lim x>infinity sinx/x =1
???
as x approaches infinity (sinx)/x = 0
but for the question

sin(pi/2n) / (pi/2n)
as n approaches infinity
pi/2n approaches 0

so think of pi/2n as x

(sinx)/x = 1 where x is approaching 0
 
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munch0r said:
as x approaches infinity (sinx)/x = 0
but for the question

sin(pi/2n) / (pi/2n)
as n approaches infinity
pi/2n approaches 0

so think of pi/2n as x

(sinx)/x = 1 where x is approaching 0
ooo i get it now
thanks
 

Js^-1

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conics2008 said:
yeah believe it or not, 2007 paper is my favourite paper over all.. i actually did all of question 8 without encountring too much pain unlike some other past papers..

I hope this year paper is the same level..

try doing paper 1993 xD
Yeah same...maybe tomorow. My head hurts enough for one day.
 

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