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Originally Posted by Templar
Read previous threads please. Then you'll realise you can't draw unit chords.
Originally Posted by SeDaTeD
Hmm, what about constructing 3 tangents to the circle, creating a triangle with sides of lenght a, b and c. Then the area of the triangle can be found by Heron's formula then equated with A=rs, where r is the radius of the circle and s = (a+b+c)/2. Then r can be found. Then you can do a bit of island hopping around the circumference with chords of length r, then joining up the opposite ones, which should interset at the centre. But then this method won't please Templar either so I'll leave it at that.
apart from the fact that you can't draw a tangent to a circle without being able to construct a right angle (which you can't using just a ruler), can you explain what you mean by "island hopping around the circumference with chords of length 'r' " plz SeDaTeD? do you mean drawing chords of length 'r' in the circle?Originally Posted by Templar
Can you even draw a tangent? I'm not sure how you can do so. But good thinking.
casebash said:Figure out using trig how far along BC the angle bisector of A will be.
No........who_loves_maths said:throught pure constructions
hi casebash,Originally Posted by casebash
It is not at all clear from previous posts that you cannot draw chords of fixed length inside a circle. You said you can't do trial and error, and this is not. You fix one mark on a circle and rotate until another mark is on the circumference. I admit i didn't read that the ruler had infinite accuracy, i though it had finite.
any two angle bisectors of a random triangle do not necessarily meet/intersect at the centre of the its circumcircle at all... it only happens with equilateral triangles.Originally Posted by casebash
Regardless, with this interpretaion, it is still easy. Draw a random triangle ABC. Figure out using trighow far along BC the angle bisector of A will be. For AB figure out how far along the angle bisector of C will be. Draw these bisectors. They meet at center of circle.
okay, i'm really starting to get annoyed now at the fact that you OBVIOUSLY have NOT read any of the posts in this thread previous to your first...Originally Posted by casebash
Ok, I admit i'm lazy, i try to get people to fill it in for themselves so i don't have to type a lot. Ok, given any two lines you can find the intersection and any two point the line. Given a point and i gradient you know the equation of the line. Finally the gradient of a line perpencicular to a line with a known equation can be calculated. First find area using that semiperimetre formula. Then get the angles with the sin area law. You can then get coordinates of the three points (relative), just construct perpenduclars to the base and componatalise. With coordinates of the vertices, get equations for lines. Then get gradient of lines perpendicular to them. OK, can get coordinates of midpoints. With coordinates of midpoints and gradients perpenduclar, get equations of perpendiclar bisectors. Get intersection at circumcenter. Now Get equation of lines between vertacices and the circumcenter. Get intersections with the sides. Now, you can finally get the points of these intersections, and join them to meet at the circumcentre. Completely obvious, and takes way way way too much effort to type out. Ok, maybe i shouldn't complain too much, but as i said i am lazy. As for pure geometric constructions, well this is a starting point.
"You can then get coordinates of the three points (relative), just construct perpenduclars to the base and componatalise... " - NO, you cannot construct perpendiculars to the base, because you have nothing to measure the (right) angle with! you ONLY have a ruler!
5)" ...get equations of perpendiclar bisectors. Get intersection at circumcenter... " - NO, you cannot construct bisectors using ONLY a ruler for you have nothing to measure the angle with.
6) your approach is certainly *NOT* "completely obvious" {as you put it} - because (i) it is illegitimate, and (ii) you have *NOT* explained yourself very well or clearly at all in that post.
so once again, i beg you to either (i) re-read, not re-skim, everything that's been posted and said before your first post carefully, and/or, (ii) *DO NOT* post something that you have not given a lot of thought too {which would also probably be flawed} again until you have FULLY understood the basic requirements that a 'proof' needs to satisfy here for this particular problem.
so until or unless you are very confident of your "solution" the next time, then don't post it up and waste other ppl's time. Incorrect or erroneous "solutions" can also completely mislead or misguide ppl, who sincerely want to learn, into misinformation and a wrong grasp of concepts.
And that is a risk you should not take upon the shoulders of others.
I think you're being a bit too harsh there. If that was the case, nobody would post a solution. This is a thread for discussion or ideas. Take note: people are allowed to be wrong! You shouldn't come down on them so hard if they can't come up a non-erroneous solution. I don't think it wastes other people's times, in fact it's good that people are able to discuss maths. It's part of learning.who_loves_maths said:so until or unless you are very confident of your "solution" the next time, then don't post it up and waste other ppl's time. Incorrect or erroneous "solutions" can also completely mislead or misguide ppl, who sincerely want to learn, into misinformation and a wrong grasp of concepts.
And that is a risk you should not take upon the shoulders of others.
Ahhh.... now that's what i'm talking about! Yes, you've got it, that's the right solution. Finally someone comes up with it - i was beginning to think (esp. after your penultimate post) that no-one here will come to this solution.Originally Posted by casebash
Ah, got it, a real geometric proof. Find the midpoints of the triangle. Draw a line through two of them to get a line parrallel to the base. Join both the bisection of this and the bisection of the base to get a line through the center. Bisect that.
Have you considered that it might take infinite number of steps, and that even if they do become diameters you wouldn't know?who_loves_maths said:by continually contructing longer chords using this fact in a structured way will produce two successive 'chords' of equal length - when this happens, these two equal chords are diameters of the circle, and since there are two of them then the point of their intersection is indeed the centre of the circle.
uhhuh, that's why it's the second solution, not my first.Originally Posted by Templar
Have you considered that it might take infinite number of steps.
sorry Templar, but here you are wrong...Originally Posted by Templar
... and that even if they do become diameters you wouldn't know?
Originally Posted by who_loves_maths
P.S. the second solution to this problem, for those still interested, lies on another simple geometric fact of the circle - that the chord joining the midpoints of any other two chords in the circle is ALWAYS longer than either of these chords.
ie. by continually contructing longer chords using this fact in a structured way will produce two successive 'chords' of equal length - when this happens, these two equal chords are diameters of the circle, and since there are two of them then the point of their intersection is indeed the centre of the circle.