I interpreted exactly divisible (even though I made no mention of 'exactly' in my post - I should have - but it is a small omission) in the same sense we could say that 6 is exactly divisible by 2 and 3: only 1 is left when when dividing by both. But in any case it is probably the wrong interpretation given the wording of the question.3unitz said:its equal to a^2(x - 1)(x - 4) not (x - 1)(x - 4)
eg. 5(x - 1)(x - 4) is divisible by both (x - 1) and (x - 4)
Hehe, true. I acknowledged this in my post.3unitz said:this is an incorrect definition of exactly divisible (heres some examples i could find on the net: example questions)
if (x - b) exactly divides P(x), P(b) = 0, this is the true mathematical definition.
(x - b) can divide P(x), however P(b) could be equal to the remainder.
P(x) = (ax + b)^2 - x
= a^2 x^2 + 2axb + b^2 - x
= (a^2)x^2 + (2ab - 1)x + b^2
note the coefficient on the x^2, if you dont consider this on your RHS (i.e. RHS = a^2(x - 4) (x - 1) ) you immediately assume a = 1 or a = -1, just so happens this is the case with this question!
treat the 3 as 1 person so the total arrangements will be 17! and also include the 2 possibilities:lyounamu said:Can I quickly ask question here:
Find the number of ways arranging 10 ladies and 10 gentleman around a table:
19! (I got this)
Given that sue, john and ray are amongst these 20 people find the probabilty that sue will sit between two.
Awesome.3unitz said:treat the 3 as 1 person so the total arrangements will be 17! and also include the 2 possibilities:
1) john, sue, ray
2) ray, sue, john
so the total number of ways = 17! x 2
probability = 17! x 2 / 19! = 1/171
No, my bad i didn't equate the co-efficients.shaon0 said:Yea equating out the coefficients is a little quicker....thats how i didn't do it.