nCr = n!/r!(n-r)!
This can be derived from the definition of permutation and combinations. Now there is also a direct correlation between Pascal's triangle and combinations.
1
1 1
1 2 1
1 3 3 1
0C0
1C0 1C0
2C0 2C1 2C0
3C0 3C1 3C1 3C0
However 0C0 = 0!/0!0! Having known that n/0 is undefined, how is it 0C0 = 1? Choosing nothing from nothing...!
EDIT:
0! =1 by definition, I guess this explains why the expression is not undefined.
It's all good!
If you want to know why it is so by definition, go to:
Why does 0! = 1 ?
This can be derived from the definition of permutation and combinations. Now there is also a direct correlation between Pascal's triangle and combinations.
1
1 1
1 2 1
1 3 3 1
0C0
1C0 1C0
2C0 2C1 2C0
3C0 3C1 3C1 3C0
However 0C0 = 0!/0!0! Having known that n/0 is undefined, how is it 0C0 = 1? Choosing nothing from nothing...!
EDIT:
0! =1 by definition, I guess this explains why the expression is not undefined.
It's all good!
If you want to know why it is so by definition, go to:
Why does 0! = 1 ?
Last edited: