you may want to write this down on paper...lol
how do you prove that " the derivative of inverse sine (x/a) is = to
1/√a^2 - x^2
and -prove that the inverse of tan x =
the derivative of inverse tan x, times x - (x / 1+x^2)
this question may be related to simpson's rule because this is a part (b) question, in part (a) it asked us the integral of inverse tanx, between 2 and 0, using simpson's rule, 5 functional values, and finish with a 2 dp approx.
i found the answer to be:12.66 for (a) but still confused on (b) thankyou!
how do you prove that " the derivative of inverse sine (x/a) is = to
1/√a^2 - x^2
and -prove that the inverse of tan x =
the derivative of inverse tan x, times x - (x / 1+x^2)
this question may be related to simpson's rule because this is a part (b) question, in part (a) it asked us the integral of inverse tanx, between 2 and 0, using simpson's rule, 5 functional values, and finish with a 2 dp approx.
i found the answer to be:12.66 for (a) but still confused on (b) thankyou!