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Induction Question (1 Viewer)

rand_althor

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Not sure how to do this. Tried splitting the inequality up into and and then prove these statements by induction, but I can't prove that they're true for n=k+1. Am I approaching this the wrong way?
 
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rand_althor

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Nope - I tried induction as that's what the other questions with this one were about.

How would I use rectangles and trapeziums?
 

Paradoxica

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I managed to prove the LH inequality. Now working on the right handed one after I type up my proof.
 
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Drsoccerball

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I proved both but im not sure abou the equality of the RHS....
Anyways:














Biggest mission typing that up on my phone... But i dont get the equality on the RHS when i do that method.
 

rand_althor

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I proved both but im not sure abou the equality of the RHS....
Anyways:






Are these the rectangles you are referring to?:


Also I'm lost on that last part I've quoted. How do you reach that conclusion and what does it actually mean?
 

Drsoccerball

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yes those are the rectangles I am talking about. If


Via negative omission
 

Paradoxica

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I'm not seeing the link between that and .



Thanks! Why do you go from to though? Also, how did you know to use that inequality you proved initially?
Lol I didn't. I retroactively inserted the proof for the inequality to make it look cleaner. The inequality case is basically the same as the equality case if you ignore
 

rand_althor

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The hint is that the integral of 1/root(x) is very similar to root(x). Riemann sums are often useful proving inequalities like this.
I can't get the LHS inequality. I can now see that with the RHS you show that approximating the area under the graph with rectangles gives an area that is lower than the exact integral, but with the LHS I'm still not sure. Could you explain what you mean by your hint?
 

InteGrand

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I can't get the LHS inequality. I can now see that with the RHS you show that approximating the area under the graph with rectangles gives an area that is lower than the exact integral, but with the LHS I'm still not sure. Could you explain what you mean by your hint?
Basically, summation and integration are very similar (of course they are, due to how we define integration). So summing (x^r)'s from x = 1 to N or something will have bounds related the form N^{r+1} (can show using area arguments with Riemann sums), except when r = -1, in which case the bounds turn out to of the form ln(N) (expected, as integrating x^(-1) gives log).

Similarities between integration and summation can further be seen in the formulas for , where r is a positive integer, are (r+1)-degree 'polynomials' in N (e.g. when r = 1, , and you can see further examples here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Faulhaber's_formula#Examples (these area called Faulhaber formulas))
 

Paradoxica

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Proof by induction for the RH Inequality.













The code is correct, but it's not rendering....
 
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