Induction Question (1 Viewer)

[Johanist]

Prove by induction

n! <= ((n+1)/2)^n

Show whole proof with the last step (the words)

I just want to see different approaches to this question as well as their wording at the end. (Hopefully someone can approach this by solving equal to zero cause I don't get that approach)

 

[Pwnage101]

Over what range of n are you talking about, because it is NOT true for n=2:


\
EDIT: A quick look at this using a spreadsheet reveals that the converse of what you stated is true for all natural numbers (and 0):

i.e.


Is this what you meant?

 

[Trebla]

 

[Johanist]

ye soz i meant that one which pwnage said