On the new boredofstudies wiki (the biki), the following comment appeared today, regarding what to do at the end of an induction:
4) You've done all the hard work. Now you must make a summary paragraph to explain it. These vary from person to person, but something to the effect of "Thus, if S(n) is true for S(k), it is also true for S(k+1), but since it is true for n=1 (or whatever the starting value is), then it must also be true for n=2, 3, 4, 5... etc. Thus S(n) is true for all natural numbers, by the principle of mathematical induction."
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But look what else I found, from tywebb:
Opinions on this issue are divided, and so I published the following comment at the end of my solution to the induction question in last year's HSC at
http://www4.tpgi.com.au/nanahcub/2005hscsol.pdf :
Now I'll be like Darth Vader and be the chosen one to bring balance to "the force", I'll placate mathematicians by ending the proof here and say the statement is therefore true for all integers n≥0 by induction. QED.
and to placate teachers I'll put the dreaded mantra here but say also that although I have for funny reasons decided to include it in this set of solutions it isn't part of the above proof:
"It is true for n=0 ∴ it is true for n=1, ∴ it is true for n=2, etc., i.e., by induction it is true for all integers n≥0."
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I have some questions for you on the matter.
No abuse please. Only sensible comments thanks.
4) You've done all the hard work. Now you must make a summary paragraph to explain it. These vary from person to person, but something to the effect of "Thus, if S(n) is true for S(k), it is also true for S(k+1), but since it is true for n=1 (or whatever the starting value is), then it must also be true for n=2, 3, 4, 5... etc. Thus S(n) is true for all natural numbers, by the principle of mathematical induction."
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But look what else I found, from tywebb:
--------------------------------------------------------------tywebb said:here's an email i got from the hsc exam committee:
"I would like to comment on the induction part of the question.
It has come to my attention that many teachers are training their students to write some form of the following mantra at the end of induction problems.
The statement is true for n=0 and hence is true for n=1. The statement is true for n=1 and hence is true for n=2. The statement is true for n=2 and hence is true for n=3 and so on. Hence the statement is true for all integers n≥0 (by induction).
In many cases the words 'by induction' are omitted.
It needs to be pointed out that
(a) No marks are awarded for this mantra in the marking guidelines for the HSC.
(b) Much time is wasted writing it
(c) Most importantly, the above mantra, especially if the word induction is left out, is at best misleading.
There is a logical (and subtle) difficulty in trying to argue that because the statement is true for any (finite) integer n, it follows that it is true for all non-negative integers n. The axiom of induction is needed to fix this difficulty.
It would be better both mathematically, and for the students themselves, if they ended induction proofs with the simple statement
Hence the statement is true for all n≥0 by induction.
I might add that students who persist in writing this mantra actually LOSE marks in our discrete Mathematics courses at University, so teachers are not doing their students any service, either in the short term (HSC marks) or in the long term. I (and others) have been complaining about this for a long time but without success."
Opinions on this issue are divided, and so I published the following comment at the end of my solution to the induction question in last year's HSC at
http://www4.tpgi.com.au/nanahcub/2005hscsol.pdf :
Now I'll be like Darth Vader and be the chosen one to bring balance to "the force", I'll placate mathematicians by ending the proof here and say the statement is therefore true for all integers n≥0 by induction. QED.
and to placate teachers I'll put the dreaded mantra here but say also that although I have for funny reasons decided to include it in this set of solutions it isn't part of the above proof:
"It is true for n=0 ∴ it is true for n=1, ∴ it is true for n=2, etc., i.e., by induction it is true for all integers n≥0."
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I have some questions for you on the matter.
- What's your opinion on the matter?
- How did your teacher teach it?
- Do you agree with your teacher?
- Do you agree with the HSC Exam Committee?
- Do you agree with the biki?
No abuse please. Only sensible comments thanks.
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