Ekman
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How'd you get the first integral to be equal to the 2nd one?
3U factorisation, and the cancellation of factors of both numerator and denominatorHow'd you get the first integral to be equal to the 2nd one?
just to fix the latex problempls someone fix my eqn. im gonna cry with latex why is it invalid
Let u=-x then use the old 2I= .... trick as well as atan(f)+atan(1/f)=pi/2.NEW QUESTION:
Let and we get:NEW QUESTION:
Can someone please explain thisLet and we get:
He just used the substitution u = -x to obtain the result. I think he skipped some of the steps due to cbf typing on LaTeX.Can someone please explain this
I understood the substitution to get this:He just used the substitution u = -x to obtain the result. I think he skipped some of the steps due to cbf typing on LaTeX.
You can also think of it graphically: replacing with has the effect of flipping the graph about the y-axis, so keeping the bounds at -1 to +1 while flipping the graph means the area under the curve is the same.I understood the substitution to get this:
But what I don't get is how you could draw a conclusion to:
Any way of showing it algebraically?You can also think of it graphically: replacing with has the effect of flipping the graph about the y-axis, so keeping the bounds at -1 to +1 while flipping the graph means the area under the curve is the same.
Oh, I see. Basically for any definite integral, it doesn't matter what our variable is, whether it is t or x or even u, since we have just assigned a name to it, so (see how it doesn't matter if it is t or x, the value remains the same, think of it as being like a 'dummy' variable.I understood the substitution to get this:
But what I don't get is how you could draw a conclusion to:
So then this would only work for cases when there are definite integrals?Oh, I see. Basically for any definite integral, it doesn't matter what our variable is, whether it is t or x or even u, since we have just assigned a name to it, so (see how it doesn't matter if it is t or x, the value remains the same, think of it as being like a 'dummy' variable.
For the indefinite case, if there is a substitution, it won't really work then you would need to be careful with the variables presented. The definite integral is always independent of the variable of integration, so it doesn't matter even if you use a substitution, you will end up getting the same value. Again, it just comes down to the naming of the variables, the mathematical argument is still retained.So then this would only work for cases when there are definite integrals?
yep lol. thanksjust to fix the latex problem
is this what you wanted ?
This one seems dodgy lol. For one thing, the cos 2x under the square root in the denominator goes negative at some points in the domain...NEW QUESTION