Just a question,
The simultaneous nature that has indeed encapsulated the global downturn in 2009 has caused severe indifferences, yet simultaneously, simularities in the policy responses initiated by world nations. However, the process of the domestic market operations as a core component of the Australian economy has indeed been a driving force in maintaining positive economic growth.
Thus, my question is:
Why has the reserve bank sought to exemplify the income inequality experienced throughout Australia through its recent monetary policy stances particularly that of purschasing overnight bonds through the process of domestic market operation, and why has the government seemingly abolished the once intrinsic labour market policies that have sought to minimise u/e in times of economic ambiguity, and instead adopted a simulcrum of a framework that has centralised wage determination in the modern age, thus emphasinsing the weakness in acceptable financial management on behalf of the Rudd Government in their total disregard for the premise established by the Howard government?
Please, only attempt to answer this question is you have a stronghold on the fundamental economic theory that encapsulates my didactic arguement.
Regards.
The simultaneous nature that has indeed encapsulated the global downturn in 2009 has caused severe indifferences, yet simultaneously, simularities in the policy responses initiated by world nations. However, the process of the domestic market operations as a core component of the Australian economy has indeed been a driving force in maintaining positive economic growth.
Thus, my question is:
Why has the reserve bank sought to exemplify the income inequality experienced throughout Australia through its recent monetary policy stances particularly that of purschasing overnight bonds through the process of domestic market operation, and why has the government seemingly abolished the once intrinsic labour market policies that have sought to minimise u/e in times of economic ambiguity, and instead adopted a simulcrum of a framework that has centralised wage determination in the modern age, thus emphasinsing the weakness in acceptable financial management on behalf of the Rudd Government in their total disregard for the premise established by the Howard government?
Please, only attempt to answer this question is you have a stronghold on the fundamental economic theory that encapsulates my didactic arguement.
Regards.
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