random-1006
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-1/3(3x+4)
No, the graph is a negative definite, thus the definite integral is always negative as b is greater than a.
If so, give a pair of values that satisfies the condition. If not, explain why not
I made this one up myself, its amazing the sort of questions you can make up if you really think about the content.
niceNo, the graph is a negative definite, thus the definite integral is always negative as b is greater than a
lol, your lucky, it doesnt make a difference, didnt you notice that first time, 1/ negative is still negativeNo, the graph is a negative definite, thus the definite integral is always negative as b is greater than a
Oh sht it's the reciprocal
MagicHopefully part d) will make you think lol.
 Prove that $\quad\tan^{-1}x+\tan^{-1}y=\tan^{-1}\left (\dfrac{x+y}{1-xy} \right )\\\\$b) Prove that $ \tan^{-1}(-x)=-\tan^{-1}x\\\\$c) Now consider $\int_{-2}^{3}\dfrac{dx}{1+x^2}\quad$ explain why $ \int_{-2}^{3}\dfrac{dx}{1+x^2} > 0\\\\$d) A student evaluates the integral in c) as follows:$\\\\\int_{-2}^{3}\dfrac{dx}{1+x^2}\\\\=\left [\tan^{-1}x\right]_{-2}^3\\=\tan^{-1}3-\tan^{-1}(-2)\\=\tan^{-1}3+\tan^{-1}2 \quad ($using result in b)$)\\=\tan^{-1}\left (\dfrac{3+2}{1-(3)(2)}\right)\quad ($using result in a$))\\\\=\tan^{-1}(-1)\\\\=-\dfrac{\pi}{4}\\\\\therefore \int_{-2}^{3}\dfrac{dx}{1+x^2} <0\\\\$Why is there a contradiction? [B]Explain the flaw[/B].$)
For part (d) it's something to do with the fact that you need to do 2pi - pi/4 for some reason... I think ... Will have a look later.Hopefully part d) will make you think lol.
 Prove that $\quad\tan^{-1}x+\tan^{-1}y=\tan^{-1}\left (\dfrac{x+y}{1-xy}  \right )\\\\$b) Prove that $ \tan^{-1}(-x)=-\tan^{-1}x\\\\$c) Now consider $\int_{-2}^{3}\dfrac{dx}{1+x^2}\quad$ explain why $ \int_{-2}^{3}\dfrac{dx}{1+x^2} > 0\\\\$d) A student evaluates the integral in c) as follows:$\\\\\int_{-2}^{3}\dfrac{dx}{1+x^2}\\\\=\left [\tan^{-1}x\right]_{-2}^3\\=\tan^{-1}3-\tan^{-1}(-2)\\=\tan^{-1}3+\tan^{-1}2 \quad ($using result in b)$)\\=\tan^{-1}\left (\dfrac{3+2}{1-(3)(2)}\right)\quad ($using result in a$))\\\\=\tan^{-1}(-1)\\\\=-\dfrac{\pi}{4}\\\\\therefore \int_{-2}^{3}\dfrac{dx}{1+x^2} <0\\\\$Why is there a contradiction? Explain the flaw.$)
Note quite. If you remember the way that the y = tan-1x was defined, it requires that for each x there must be a unique value of y. The addition of 2kπ seems to imply non-uniqueness.Maybe because in actual fact the result in (a) should be stated as arctana + arctanb=arctan[(a+b)/(1-ab)] +2*pi*k (for appropriate integral value of k) due to some trigonometric property...?
x and y are not "angles". The inverse tangent of them are "angles". So from your labelling, A and B are the angles, not x and y. Even with that correction, tan-14 and tan-12 both give acute angles, so that doesn't quite explain the flaw.when we are proving the formula part 1, we are assuming x is acute
A= arctanx, B = arctany
tanA=x, tanB= y
etc.
the above step is assuming acute x, and the limits of integration are 3 and -2 RADIANS ( which is larger than pi/2, ie larger than 90 degrees, not an acute angle.
Well technically speaking you should say that there's a gap in the domain. Talking about continuity at a point not in the domain of the function doesn't make sense.There is a discontinuity at x=4.
You're on the right track with that...something about the range of arctan is : -pi/2 < y < pi/2
isn't it 0?
 
				