Re: HSC 2014 2U Marathon
i think its just a 1 mark question, because 1/(xlnx) can be seen as (1/x)/(lnx), hence, ln(lnx)+c.
Also the answer to this question http://postimg.org/image/id86iq0qb/ = ((pi^pi)-1)/ln(pi). (working, you just move the lnpi from the rhs to lhs and bingo)
also guys...