I got the answer as A, but apparently the answer is D.
Here is my reasoning; the emf produced is faraday's equation thing right? tge = -n X (change in magnetic flux)/(change in time)
Hence, it's basically the derivative of the function of the magnetic flux, given in the question. Therefore if you take the gradient of the tangent at any point across the curve you will be given the appropriate value for potential difference of the emf, and hence you will be able to derive the curve for the rate of change of magnetic flux. now take for example the gradient when Time = 0, the gradient is a maximum positive value, which means that the EMF produced is equal too the negative of this value, so HOW IN THE WORLD does it make sense that the emf produced is 0???????????
I need help bros.