what do you mean by morals, and by universal/relative?
I personally hold that happiness (as a generalised term for any 'positive' feeling we have) is the fundamental good (I cannot concieve of anything more fundamental that this). This idea naturally leads to utilitarianism (as I interpret the philosophy, at least) - i.e. considering the quantity and quality of the happiness, considering as many different aspects of it as we can (eg. as far into the future as we can).
So, here we have a measure of good/bad, which, while based on subjective experience, and being extremely difficult to quantify, could be said to be objective.
However, whether an action would lead to an overall rise in 'happiness' levels is dependent upon many factors involved, and I do not believe there to be any single action, or state of things, which can be considered better than all others. As such, I would say that whether an action can be considered to be good is relative, as it is based on external factors as to whether it does lead to a rise in 'happiness'. Also, since no state would be better than all others, morality (how we should act in a given situation) is continually evolving, so with increased knowledge (eg. better insight into long-term effects), or a change in circumstances, old 'morals' are replaces with new ones (which I think goes against an absolutist interpretation).
Quite simply are morals universal or relative?
From the above, I would say that both terms are somewhat appropriate, but also misleading. I think that we can always reduce an actions goodness to considerations of happiness (complex as this may be) which I guess could be said to be absolute. But, on the other hand, how exactly we should act is dependent upon all external factors surrounding a situation, and there can be no best act, so here morals can be said to be relative.
Are some thing wrong - always have been and always will be?
While no action in itself can be said to be inherently wrong without a consideration of the factors involved, it may be the case that for some specific actions, any time that they are performed on this earth they lead to reduction in 'happiness' when viewing. Such an action could be said to be "wrong - always has been and always will be".
Or are morals a social construct of some sort?
The actual morals we hold (thou shalt not murder or rape etc.) are partly social construct, as well as being guided by instinct, or by reasoning.
If morals are a social construct then are any morals truly better or worse than any others? If for example the morals of another society permit genocide then is it no longer immoral? What if two groups with differing morals clash - are they both moral or both immoral?
Just because a society permits a particular thing does not necessarily mean it is good even for that society. I think that, yes, you could say that some morals are better than others, but determining which is the best course of action would be very difficult.
When morals clash, what is probably required, is a more rigorous look at the morals of each group, and the situation at hand, and to then decide how to proceed (a very complex process, of course)
And on the otherside if morals are universal in some way then what are they? And where did they come from?
So, under my view, a universal "what are
they" view is not correct, but rather there is one thing ('happiness') which we strive for, and is the goal of a moral system/judgment etc. to achieve. As to where it came from - all I can think to say is "experience". Some feelings can be said to be positive (happiness), and others negative (unhappiness), which we can tell without having any prior system of morals. As I said, I can conceive of any other measure of good.
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Sorry if a lot of this didn't make sense/isn't saying much. I just woke up